Dryden

.Do you find any difference between Aristotle's definition of the play? Yes,there is huge difference between Aristotle's definition of tragedy and Dryden's definition of the play. Aristotle says that tragedy is an action that is serious and also having magnitude complete in itself and said about 'Catharsis'. Dryden says that he added two words in the definition that is just and live. .If I suppose to give my personal predilection,i would like to be on the side of modern,because ancient have followed the rules and disciplines and moderns have not only followed on imitated them but also given something new with the help of new inventions in that era like in science and changes in the social world. .I think arguments are presented in the favor of English plays.The plots of French plays are barren while English once are copious to further the same action. .I would like to go with poetic dialoges in the play.There are two critics who argued in terms of rhymes and blank Verde.